Anna and I had an interesting conversation last night reguarding the issue of the Immaculate conception of the Virgin Mary. One of the arguments (evidently) made by John De Satge was that one must have a doctrine of the immaculate conception tied to grace in order to contend that Mary’s response “let it be done to me according to your will…” was not merit. Yet, in considering, I’m not certain that one can hold to that without also contending that grace was not operative before the incarnation… I know some who argue this, but not many Anglicans…. still need to do more reading and thought…